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I have a question for you.When did the empire (IM-pi-yur) waist become the empire (ohm-PEER) waist?If one of you could just get back to me on that.Thanks,k.
Posted by Kalisa on Friday, February 16, 2007 at 10:57 PM | Permalink
Thank you, this has been bugging me too. So, when I saw your post I went over to dictionary.com and searched it. Guess what? They're right. Well, it's a to-may-to/to-mah-to or in this case om-pir/empir thing according to the pronounciation key. 'Characterist of a neoclassical style... prevalent in France... first part of 19th century. So I guess I'm the one who has to get over it. Damn. Hate when I'm wrong.
Posted by Anonymous |